If Sodom was destroyed for “homosexuality,” why does God say, in Ezekiel 49:49–51, it was because of women’s inhospitality? Can you answer that?
Why does God show up to investigate in Sodom a crime that has already occurred? (Genesis 18:20–21) Can you answer that?
Human marriage is never covenantal in the Bible. It’s contractual. In Genesis 31:15, Rachel and Lea, after marrying Jacob, say their father “sold” them to him. Biblical heroes have many wives & concubines. Can you explain that?
In Gen 2:24, what is the “cause” Jesus is speaking of, and why does he assign the line to God the Father? Why would God the father, in Eden, say that “a man shall leave his father and mother”—Adam had neither.
I just get the feeling you made it all up, and went on the attack—when Jesus says to love enemies and speaks to all people with kindness.